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Dear Rabbi, I found a prophecy in Isaiah that I thought might be speaking about the recent return of the Jews from Britain and the English Empire. The verse says, “For the isles will hope for Me, and the ships… to bring your sons from afar, their silver and their gold with them, in the name of the Lord your God and for the Holy One of Israel, for He has glorified you.” (60:9) It seems to me that this refers to the return of the Jewish people to their homeland "Israel" by ships and would be about their return after 1948. And it seems to me that the "isle" in this verse is "Britain." Britain is an isle and I am not aware of the Jewish people ever returning to their homeland in ships from any other nation. Am I on to something, Rabbi? Thanks!

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Greetings,   I was working with a man years ago in NJ, and he was Jewish. We talked often about our faith, I myself a Catholic. Once we were talking about Isaiah and I mentioned how we used this book as a prophesy for Jesus. He told me once that they didn't delve into the book of Isaiah and I was wondering if I misunderstood.

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Why is there a dot on the top right side of the first Aleph in Genesis 1:3?

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1. According to biblical Hebrew or Hebrew grammar, Which one is the pronoun reference of (מִשָּׁרָשָׁ֥יו) in Isaiah 11:1, (חֹ֖טֶר) or (גֵּ֣זַע יִשָׁ֑י)? (apart from any commentaries) 2. According to biblical Hebrew, Do the pronominal suffixes in Isaiah 11:2-5 refer to (נֵ֖צֶר) in isaiah 11:1 and don't they refer to (חֹ֖טֶר)? (apart from any commentaries)

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Hi, What are the Jewish commentaries about Isaiah 9:1: "The people that walked in darkness Have seen a brilliant light; On those who dwelt in a land of gloom Light has dawned." - Especially, Abarbanel, Radak, Malbim, Malbim beur hamilot?

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The names Potiphar and Potiphera are very similar. Is it the same person? I read one commentary, which says yes, (including Rashi) and another, which says no. MIKETZ Genesis 41:45 Pharaoh gave Asenath to Joseph for a wife. Asenath was the daughter of POTI PHERA, the governor of On. בַּת־פּ֥וֹטִי פֶ֛רַע כֹּהֵ֥ן אֹ֖ן VAYESHEV Genesis 37:36 The Midianites sold Joseph in Egypt to POTIPHAR, chief of the slaughterers. פֽוֹטִיפַר֙

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How do you interpret Isaiah 7:14, given that Isaiah 8:8 calls the entire land Immanuel’s land?

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I’ve a short question about Bereshit 18:1 regards the opening words: וירא אליו יהוה. Normally the word וירא (vayera) is translated as ‘He (G-d) appeared’, but the word is similar to וירא (vayara) which could be translated as ‘He (G-d) saw’. So could one translate the introduction as: And the Lord looked upon him by the terebinths (trees) of Mamre/in the plains (valley or vale) of Mamre, and he (Avraham) sat in/at the entrance of the tent in the heat of the day. Of course, it’s the Lord that speaks to Avraham later on asking him why Sarah laughed. And thus one could say וירא means ‘He appeared’ in this case such as is the case in other verses like Bereshit 12:7 and 17:1. Yet there are three men/heavenly abodes/angels who appear to Avraham. So one could also imagine the Lord didn’t appeared but looked upon Avraham after his circumcision and seeing him He sends these three visitors; it even says in verse 18:2 these visitors ‘stood above him’ as if they decended from heaven. Any commentaries which relate to this idea of G-d watching over Avraham instead of appearing to Him?