I’ve a short question about Bereshit 18:1 regards the opening words: וירא אליו יהוה.
Normally the word וירא (vayera) is translated as ‘He (G-d) appeared’, but the word is similar to וירא (vayara) which could be translated as ‘He (G-d) saw’. So could one translate the introduction as: And the Lord looked upon him by the terebinths (trees) of Mamre/in the plains (valley or vale) of Mamre, and he (Avraham) sat in/at the entrance of the tent in the heat of the day.
Of course, it’s the Lord that speaks to Avraham later on asking him why Sarah laughed. And thus one could say וירא means ‘He appeared’ in this case such as is the case in other verses like Bereshit 12:7 and 17:1.
Yet there are three men/heavenly abodes/angels who appear to Avraham. So one could also imagine the Lord didn’t appeared but looked upon Avraham after his circumcision and seeing him He sends these three visitors; it even says in verse 18:2 these visitors ‘stood above him’ as if they decended from heaven.
Any commentaries which relate to this idea of G-d watching over Avraham instead of appearing to Him?
Dear Rabbi, can you answer a question for me? Some friends and I were sitting around yesterday discussing something, and I mentioned that there are no vowels written down in the Torah. But I was at a loss to explain why not. So, how come there are no vowels written in the Torah? Thanks!
"And the people were as murmurers, speaking evil in the ears of the LORD; and when the LORD heard it, His anger was kindled; and the fire of the LORD burnt among them, and devoured in the uttermost part of the camp." (Bamidbar 11:1)
What are they say and why did Hashem burnt them?
The phrase “inhabitants of Jerusalem” is used numerous times in the prophets, especially in Jeremiah. In Isaiah 8:14 it seems to indicate they are not Israel or Judah.
“And he shall be for a sanctuary; but for a stone of stumbling and for a rock of offence to both the houses of Israel, for a gin and for a snare to the inhabitants of Jerusalem.”
Does anyone know who exactly they were?
I am greatly perplexed by Isa. 43:10b. My English translations tend to render this part as ‘Before Me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after Me’. Needless to say, to an English reader this sounds a lot like HaShem is saying that He was Himself at some point formed (Isa. 43:13a seems to me to be saying the same thing too!).
Can you help me understand these words? I cannot follow HaShem if He is not the Most High God!
Hello! I was pushing myself outside my comfort zone recently and decided to start memorizing the Tanak. To start out I went small and one of the books I now have memorized is Obadiah. It's really incredible the things you pick up on as you're committing these things to memory. It allows the brain to chew on a lot of different aspects of Scripture.
So here are my questions. Why does Benjamin possess Gilead at the end of Obadiah? Why would it not be one of the 2 1/2 tribes that Moshe assigned the land to, *or* why would it not be Judah? And why is Benjamin the only tribe mentioned by name in this account of the People returning to the Promised Land?
I've been mulling this over and I can't figure it out. Thanks for the help on this!
I would like a direct translation of this verse from the Hos 6:2 from the WLC
יחינו מימים ביום השלישי יקמנו ונחיה לפניו׃
how does mî-yō-mā-yim
get translated to after two days? instead can it be translated "from the days (gone by) "?