Question
Shalom aleichem Rabbi Lauffer. From Mishnah Berurah 656:8, it is clear that the same procedure used for ma'aser kesafim is used for spending money on mitzvos in general. Quoting the MB there: "See the Magen Avraham and Elyah Rabbah that just like for the purpose of charity the tithe is taken from the principal in the first year, when it has been earned, and from then on from the profit which derives from it, this is also so with respect to what is discussed here." Given that the same rule of a 20% limit applies to both ma’aser kesafim and mitzvah expenses in general, if a person does the mitzvah of ma’aser kesafim min hamuvchar, which is 20%, would he be exempt from expending money to do any other mitzvah? Or when they say that one doesn’t have to spend more than 20% of his income on mitzvos, is it only talking about the income that remains after giving 20% for ma’aser kesafim? Thanks a lot.

Question
Hello. What do rishonim and even Chazal say about the halachic matter of kapara without the activity of the Kohen Gadol in the Beis Hamikdash on Yom Kippur? I am aware of the general concept of prayers replacing sacrifices, but specifically, what is the effect of not having the kapara through the avoda of the Kohen Gadol? Do we have anything in the Oral Law that indicates the alternative (as we do in the matter of the calendar through cheshbon instead of testimony)? Thank you.
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Question
Shalom aleichem Rabbi Lauffer. Thank you for answering my last question. It is brought down in halacha (Orach Chaim 656) that a person is not obligated to spend more than 20% of his money on performing a positive mitzvah. Is the 20% calculated according to his total bank account, or is it calculated like ma'aser kesafim is, according to his yearly income. For example, if a certain mitzvah would cost more than 20% of the man's income for that year, but it would be less than 20% of his total bank account that he has saved up from forever, would he still be obligated to perform that mitzvah? Thanks a lot.

Question
Sha'atnez is a mixture of wool and linen. The Torah forbids wearing any clothing that contains both wool and linen. Why not? What is so special about wool and linen? Please explain this prohibition. Are there other mixtures that also cannot be worn? Thanks.  
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Question
This week we read in the Torah portion of Ki Teitzei (Deut. 22:6-7) that before taking the eggs from a nest there's a mitzvah to send away the mother bird. How do we get eggs today from a hen house? Are the chickens removed? If not are the eggs still kosher?

Question
This week we read in the Torah portion of Ki Teitzei (Deut. 22:6-7) that before taking the eggs from a nest, there's a mitzvah to send away the mother bird. How do we get eggs today from a hen house? Are the chickens removed? If not are the eggs still kosher?

Question
I have been told by various rabbis (and by the books, articles, and web-sites which they refer me to) that a person who owns the animal must always feed the animal before taking his/her own food in order to avoid any cruelty to animals. However, I am recently informed by professional dog-trainers (and by the books, articles, and web-sites which they refer me to) that this must not be done in the case of dogs — because a dog’s nature is such that the dog always believes “whoever eats first is the leader, the owner, the one who must be obeyed”: therefore, I am told, a dog which eats before its owner eats will become untrainable and will rebel against its owner, perhaps even attack its owner. (This was shown to be in various scientific textbooks and documentaries on dogs’ instincts, abilities, and behavior is this regard. Dogs have no ability to set aside these particular instincts.) Therefore, in thé case of a dog (knowing these facts about the nature of dogs), is it permissible for the owner/trainer to eat first, so that the dog understands that the one in charge is the person (the owner/trainer) and not the dog?