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Is there a method within Jewish law to change one’s Hebrew name from the name one was assigned by their parents at birth for any reason, such as if one does not like their name?

Question
My boyfriend and I went to an orthodox Grand Siyum Seder Moed. The shul was sephardic that put it on. I am used to a modern orthodox or conservative shul and my boyfriend is conservative. After sitting for a few minutes we realized the men and women were sitting on separate sides of the room. I had only seen this done in shul, not at a meal. We chose to stay at our table sort of in the middle in the back. We wondered if we would sit alone but another couple from that shul sat with us, and two other men with one child each-their wives at the women's side of the room. my question is: were we being rude/disrespectful by not going to separate tables. We did not know anybody, I would have been sort of ok moving and being separate from my boyfriend but he would have been extremely uncomfortable. Neither of us knew ahead of time, nor did we realize that some orthodox sit separate at meals. I can handle this for the future and ask ahead of time but were we wrong to stay together at our table?

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Note: you do not have to be politically correct with me in answering this question. I saw a YouTube video on middle ground between orthodox Jews and reformed Jews. One of the reformed Jew said that there are six genders in the Torah, in an attempt to justify that Judaism should accept LGBT folk. That was not discussed in the debate. So I looked online and I found that the Talmud lists six genders (Zachar, Androgynos, Tumtum, Ay’lonit, and Saris). The Talmud is not an easy read, but I gather from this that this is more referring to the intersex and hermaphrodites. But my question is: Do these 5 gender distinctions in the Talmud also apply to the LGBT?

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Rabbi, I have some questions about rachatz. Some will be opinion questions. Please answer whatever you like and leave the rest. It concerns the wedding at Cana, John chapter 2 -- which I copy here: -- On the third day there was a marriage at Cana in Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there; Jesus also was invited to the marriage, with his disciples. When the wine failed, the mother of Jesus said to him, "They have no wine." And Jesus said to her, "O woman, what have you to do with me? My hour has not yet come." His mother said to the servants, "Do whatever he tells you." Now six stone jars were standing there, for the Jewish rites of purification, each holding twenty or thirty gallons. Jesus said to them, "Fill the jars with water." And they filled them up to the brim. He said to them, "Now draw some out, and take it to the steward of the feast." So they took it. When the steward of the feast tasted the water now become wine, and did not know where it came from (though the servants who had drawn the water knew), the steward of the feast called the bridegroom and said to him, "Every man serves the good wine first; and when men have drunk freely, then the poor wine; but you have kept the good wine until now." This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory; and his disciples believed in him. -- 1) That sounds like an awful lot of water for rachatz before oneg -- some 150 gallons for a rather small synagogue. Could it be that the water was left there continually for anybody attending or visiting the schul to daily wash up? 2) Archaeologists find that the synagogue had a mikvah, underground nearby, I think. Could it be that a woman or a man coming for a mikvah would take a pitcher of this water with him to rinse off before entering the mikvah? 3) Would people ladle out water to wash their hands? Or is it possible, at that time, they might have dipped their hands? 4) Would the wine in these stone jars defile them? And if so, would they need to be replaced? 5) Jesus didn't need to use these jars nor this water. He told the servants to dip out some wine and bring it to the steward. It wasn't a public miracle. Only the servants and, I suppose, some of the disciples knew about the specially produced wine. But John calls it, not a miracle, but a sign. Other than the obvious (wine is a nicer drink than water,) -- and this was before Jesus equated wine with his blood -- what, in your opinion, could have been the sign Jesus intended? I will be very much pleased to hear back from you. Peter

Question
1 Chronicles 8:9: sons of Shacharayim with wife Chodesh Yud~Vav~Bet~Bet - Yowbab - "a desert" Tzaddi~Bet~Yud~Aleph Tsibya - "roe" Mem~Yud~Shin~Aleph Meysha - "freedom" Mem~Lamed~Kaf~Mem Malkam - "their great king" I see that the letters Vav~Aleph~Tav connect each of the names . What's significant about the Aleph~Tav ? Does Aleph~Tav clarify something? I've noticed in other passages of Scripture when naming descendants or persons, Aleph~Tav isn't used. Does Aleph~Tav denote a special relationship with G-d? Curious to know.