Question
1. The Israelites ate manna during ALL 40 years that they wandered in the desert. Is that correct? 2. Did they also eat quail during ALL 40 years? 3. I found conflicting passages about quail. Exodus 16:1 On the fifteenth day of the second month after their departure from the land of Egypt, the Israelites started complaining. So G-d provided manna. Manna fell for them on the sixteenth of Iyar. Exodus 16:13 is the first time that quail is mentioned. Quail were provided at night. Was this provision of quail a one-time occurrence or every night? Numbers 11:18–20 seems to indicate that G-d provided quail for 30 days only until the Israelites were sick of eating it. At what point during the 40 years did this occur? Thanks.

Question
Dear Rabbi, "Pareve" is a very common term. Has it always been this way, and when did it originate? Also, what is the source of the word? Thank you.

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Hello I asked you: "according to biblical Hebrew or Hebrew grammar Does the pronominal suffixes in Isaiah 11:2-5 refers to (נֵ֖צֶר) in isaiah 11:1? (apart from any commentary) " And you answerd me: " The word “netzer” means shoot but it is referring to the Messiah. The verses that follow on after it are references to the Messiah which means that they are referring to the word “netzer”." Another question: Could you please tell me a little about this Hebrew structure, even in a sentence? For instance why is it that the Pronominal suffixes in (Isaiah 11:2-5) don't go back to(חֹ֖טֶר) in (Isaiah 11:1) and go back to(נֵ֖צֶר) ?

Question
I asked you about what the pronominal suffixe in Isaiah 11:2 refers to, and thank you for your response. But there's still one grammatical question: According to biblical Hebrew or Hebrew grammar does the pronominal suffixes in Isaiah 11:2-5 refers to (נֵ֖צֶר) in isaiah 11:1? (apart from any commentary)?

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Shalom Aleichem Dear Rabbi, 1) What do these exactly mean? צֶ֣מַח חֹ֖טֶר נֵ֖צֶר יוֹנֵק 2) And which of them are synonymous with each other?

Question
In ancient Jewish history, many people had the label of ‘tzaddik,’ all while they committed the egregious acts of murder, kidnap, and forbidden sex acts to name a few. Today, there are numerous Jews who would never dare do any of these things and are generally upstanding, caring individuals and many are very learned in Torah as well. Yet hardly anyone in modern times is described as a tzaddik. What makes it so the legacy of all the ancient tzaddikim forgives these horrific acts while not stripping them of the tzaddik label, but most people today who fill their lives with mitzvot will never acquire the title of tzaddik?

Question
While studying Michtav Me'Eliyahu, by Rabbi Dessler, I came across the terms "gadlut d'mochin" and "katnut d'mocin" several times. What do these terms mean?