I'm an agnostic atheist with an intellectual interest in religions - I'm studying judaism now as opposed to christianity, and I am confused as to the sociological/scriptural basis for the relative absense of jewish fundamentalism (belief that scriptures should be followed literally and absolutely is the meaning I'm using). Many people eat kosher foods and so forth, but nobody executes homosexuals etc as parts of the OT demand, and I was wondering how that happened. It's my theory that fundamentalist judaism wasn't in power ie "enforced" by some authority for long enough that secular values such as life, liberty, persuit of happiness etc could develop - but I'm not sure how that happened or how it's permissable to follow any kind of social concensus within the scriptures. Anyway, I was just wondering what your take on this would be, and if you can give me an answer scripturally as to how fundamentalism isn't followed anymore, or how that's permisable. Thanks very much, M

If someone does not know whether his mother became a Jew before or after he was born, and asking her would cause her distress, is it better to ask anyway, or undergo a giyur l'chumra instead?

Rabbi, I know what the rabbis of today believe about the meaning of Isaiah, chapter 53...but can you tell me how the ancient sages interpreted this passage? thank you

My Chrisitan bible study asks "Why would the month of Abib stand "at the head" of Israel's calendar? It notes reference to "Exodus 12:2 (See Exodus 13:4; Exodus 23:15; Deut 16:1 My Jewish friend suggested this site could help me.

What is the significance of the different terms and spellings of Rabbi, Rebbe, Rav etc., etc.? Does the Christian word 'Reverend' have it's roots in this term? Thank you, Dan Dykstra